Is it “100% wrong in totality”? Mens rea (“guilty mind”) is a required element of many crimes [1]. Moreover, there’s the whole annoying concept of due process [2]:
> as due process required that the defendant have notice of the crime at issue. The Lambert decision explicitly recognized this fair notice requirement as an exception to the general rule that ignorance of the law is no defense.
I’m not saying that necessarily applies here but clearly ignorance of the law can sometimes be an excuse, no?
> as due process required that the defendant have notice of the crime at issue. The Lambert decision explicitly recognized this fair notice requirement as an exception to the general rule that ignorance of the law is no defense.
I’m not saying that necessarily applies here but clearly ignorance of the law can sometimes be an excuse, no?
[1] https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mens_rea
[2] https://nccriminallaw.sog.unc.edu/ignorance-law-excuse/