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There have now been several intervention trials investigating whether HDL-raising meds improve health outcomes (there’s no evidence to show they do) and MRs looking at genetically determined HDL-c and various health measures (no evidence of effect either). We don’t actually have any evidence that HDL is anything other than a proxy for other factors, and no evidence that it directly affects anything.

Yes, there are no known issues. You can speculate that there might be, but we could equally speculate that they’re actually superfoods and we don’t know it yet. At the end of the day, speculation is all it is so I believe it’s most sensible to apply the principle of indifference and look only at what we do know. That is, margarine is a sensible replacement for butter on the current evidence.

Because of antagonistic pleiotropy, we can actually make an a priori argument that given two foods that are equally health promoting within the reproductive window (I.e. it’s not killing or neutering people before the age of ~50), then probability holds that the food to which we are least adapted is actually more likely to promote longevity than the ancestral food.

Because adaptations are on net more likely to be antagonistically pleiotropic than not, foods to which we are most adapted are more likely than not making a trade off in favour of reproductive success over longevity. Since we don’t have these adaptations to novel foods, this concern does not apply to them.

Therefore, given butter and margarine are both similar in their effects on reproductive success, with no further information at all we should favour margarine. The fact there are studies confirming this is just icing on the cake.



You're making very strong claims based around broad trends in genetics for a process that isn't entirely genetic. The society that is choosing what to eat and how to prepare it is doing so based on their own set of axioms, not pure genetic biology.


The argument is probabilistic, it’s not required that food seeking behaviours are entirely genetic for it to go through. As long as food seeking behaviours and/or preferences are to some degree genetically determined, then the argument is sound and valid.


If I can safely discount all human behavior through history, then I can also assume that the behavioral changes you are espousing are equally non-relevant. Either human behavior can be a greater driver than genetic probability or it can't.


Where was human behaviour discounted in my argument?




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