Is the result of the addition or multiplication of an irrational number with any other real number not equal to it (and non-zero in the case of multiplication) always irrational? ex: pi + e, pi * e, but also sqrt(2) - 1 or sqrt(3) * 2.54 ?
No, sqrt(5)*sqrt(16*5)=20. More trivially, there's always a number y such that z = x*y for a given irrational x. You can give similar examples for all the other basic operations.
Definitely not; consider the formula for calculating the log of any base given only the natural logarithm. That can result e.g. in two irrational numbers, the ratio of which are integers.
There is an important distinction to be made here. Examples in this thread show cases of irrational numbers multiplied by or added to other irrational numbers producing real numbers, but in the special case of a rational number added to or multiplied by an irrational number, the result is always irrational.
Otherwise, supposing for instance that (n/m)x is rational for integers n, m, both non-zero, and irrational x, we can express (n/m)x as a ratio of two integers p, q, q non-zero: (n/m)x = p/q if and only if x = (mp)/(qn). Since integers are closed under multiplication, x is rational, against supposition; thus by contradiction (n/m)x is irrational for any rational r = (n/m), with integers n, m both non-zero. Similarly for the case of addition.
To put the first equation more formally, we know that ℚ is closed under addition¹, so given k∊ℝ\ℚ, l∊ℚ then if k+l=m∊ℚ, then m-l=m+(-l)∊ℚ, but m-l=k which is not in ℚ so k+l∉ℚ.
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1. For p,q∊ℚ, let p=a/b, q=c/d, a,b,c,d∊ℤ, then p+q=(ad+bc)/bd, but the products and sums of integers are integers, so p+q∊ℚ