I'd say it's a mistake that's common enough to be forgivable when made by the general public, but I doubt you'll find any grammatically reputable source that says it's not a mistake. The article gets it right elsewhere.
(We're talking about "it could be bad timing for Amazon and it's new Kindle Fire HDX tablet", right?)
> it could be bad timing for Amazon and it's new Kindle Fire HDX tablet
Is it valid here? If so, why? I've always been taught that "it's" was only a valid contraction of "it is" or rarely "it has", neither of which fit here.
Yes, I am entirely serious. Up until early 1800s possessive it's was the grammatical norm. Today it's obsolete, but people who moan about the issue typically have no clue.
